Practice Test 2

Q. 1
What is the color of G-CSF drug?
  • a. Blue
  • b. Yellow
  • c. Pink
  • d. Purple
  • e. White
  • Answer: E

  • Explaination: Explanation: G-CSF is a drug made of protein which is known for its growth factor. It makes the bone marrow to prepare white blood cells (WBCs). The bone marrow prepares the blood cells. The drug is a white powder, which is dissolved in sterile water in a small glass bottle. It is also procured in a pre-filled syringe.
Q. 2
2. Which one of the following signs or symptoms is absent in prostate cancer?
  • a. Anuria
  • b. Hematuria
  • c. Dysuria
  • d. Back pain
  • e. Nocturia
  • Answer: A

  • Explaination: Explanation: Frequent urination is seen in patients with prostate cancer and anuria is absent. Hematuria and dysuria are typical signs of prostate cancer. Back pain is common in prostate cancer. Increased urination at night is seen along with difficulty in starting and maintaining steady stream of urine in patients with prostate cancer.
Q. 3
Which of the following does not cause mutation within a proto-oncogene?
  • a. A decrease in protein activity
  • b. Loss of regulation
  • c. A decrease in protein concentration
  • d. Gene duplication
  • e. A chromosomal translocation
  • Answer: C

  • Explaination: Explanation: An increase in protein concentration does not cause mutation within a proto-oncogene. Increase in the protein occurs with an increase in protein stability. It is a cause of mutation within a proto-oncogene. Protein’s existence becomes long and it participates in gene duplication with an increased amount of protein in the cell and chromosomal translocation.
Q. 4
Which one of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
  • a. RET
  • b. MET
  • c. KIT
  • d. BCR-ABL
  • e. BRCA 1
  • Answer: E

  • Explaination: Explanation: Inherited mutation genes are RET, KIT and MET. Chromosomal re-arrangement can lead to the appearance of acquired mutations of oncogenes; it is called BCR-ABL. Tumor suppressor genes slow the cell division and repair the DNA. It also destines the cell to die. Tumor suppressor genes are TP53 (p53), BRCA1, BRCA2, APC, and RB1.
Q. 5
Which is considered as a normal gene that finally becomes an oncogene due to mutations?
  • a. Proto-oncogene
  • b. Oncoprotein
  • c. Oncomirs
  • d. Oncovirus
  • e. Apoptosis
  • Answer: A

  • Explaination: Explanation: A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that becomes an oncogene after mutations. After oncogene formation, a protein appears, which is known as an oncoprotein. When a proto-oncogene causes tumor, it is called as an oncogene. Appearance of oncogenes is regulated by micro RNAs and small RNAs. It reduces the gene appearance by down-regulating them. Mutations in micro RNAs are called as oncomirs. Oncovirus is a virus causing cancer. In apoptosis, there is a programmed cell death.
Q. 6
Which form of cancer is highly expected in Ataxia telangiectasia?
  • a. Leukemia
  • b. Pancreas cancer
  • c. Gall-bladder cancer
  • d. Liver cancer
  • e. Lung cancer
  • Answer: A

  • Explaination: Explanation: Patients who are diagnosed with A-T have risk of developing lymphoma and leukemia. Radiation therapy must be avoided incase of patients with A-T as it is considered as a toxin. Leukemia and lymphomas vary from solid tumor stage to metastatic stage. All other above-mentioned forms of cancer do not occur in as high incidence as Leukemia does.
Q. 7
Which electrolyte disturbance is common in patients receiving cisplatin?
  • a. Hypermagnesemia
  • b. Hypercalcaemia
  • c. Hyperkalemia
  • d. Hyponatremia
  • e. Hypomagnesaemia
  • Answer: E

  • Explaination: Explanation: The side effects of cisplatin are hypomagnesaemia, hypokalemia and hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia is due to low serum magnesium. Low serum magnesium is due to the use of cisplatin. All other above-mentioned electrolyte disturbances are not considered as the side effects of the drug cisplatin.
Q. 8
A 45-year-old male patient gets an abnormal result on a pap smear test. The patient reads the pap smear report and asks regarding dysplasia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide him?
  • a. Presence of un-differentiated tumor cells, which are not similar cells to the tissues of its own origin
  • b. More amount of normal cell which is normally arranged in a tissue
  • c. Replacement of differentiated cell by a type of cell which is not normally found
  • d. Alteration in only the size of the differentiated cells
  • e. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.
  • Answer: E

  • Explaination: Explanation: The nurse must say that an alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells is known as dysplasia. The appearance of undifferentiated tumor cells which are not similar to the cells of the tissues of its own origin is called anaplasia. More amount of normal cells in a normally arranged tissue is known as hyperplasia. Replacement of differentiated cell by a type pf cell which is not normally found is known as metaplasia.
Q. 9
A 38-year-old female patient asks regarding mammogram and breast cancer. She is not a high risk client for breast cancer. What must the nurse say to this patient?
  • a. Tell her that she must have had a baseline mammogram before the age of 30
  • b. Educate her on a low-fat diet to decrease her chances of getting breast cancer
  • c. Educate her to da a breast self-examination in the first 5 days at her menstrual cycle
  • d. Educate that if yearly mammograms are done in a routine, breast self-examination is not needed
  • e. She should perform breast self-examination during the last 5 days of each menstrual cycle.
  • Answer: B

  • Explaination: Explanation: The nurse has to educate the patient that a low-fat diet reduces the risk of breast cancer. A baseline mammogram is necessary for the age group between 30 and 40. Routine breast self-examinations are done between 7th and 10th day of the menstrual cycle. The patient must perform monthly breast self-examinations even when undergoing yearly mammograms.
Q. 10
A 46-year-old female patient is diagnosed with cancer and is planning to undergo radiation therapy. The nurse knows that the radiation can cause some generalized adverse effects. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse tell the patient to anticipate for?
  • a. Stomatitis
  • b. Hair loss
  • c. Vomiting
  • d. Fatigue
  • e. Cyanosis
  • Answer: D

  • Explaination: Explanation: Radiation therapy has side-effects like fatigue, weakness, toxicity of the skin and lack of hunger. These are considered as generalized side-effects of radiation therapy. These side-effects occur, independent of the treatment location in the body. Hair loss, stomatitis, and vomiting are not generalized side-effects. They are adverse effects of radiation therapy which are site specific.
Q. 11
A nurse is collecting past medical history from a 43-year-old male patient. Which of the following conditions can make the nurse suspect colorectal cancer in this patient?
  • a. Hemorrhoids
  • b. Duodenal ulcers
  • c. Polyps
  • d. Weight gain of 10 kgs
  • e. Weight gain of 15 kgs
  • Answer: C

  • Explaination: Explanation: Polyps found in the colorectal region are found to be pre-existed in patients diagnosed with colon cancer. Ulcers in the duodenum and hemorrhoids are usually not present prior to colorectal cancer. Weight loss indicates colorectal cancer. Weight gain is not found to be associated with colorectal cancer.
Q. 12
A 48-year-old female patient is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following features makes the nurse identify that there is an electrolyte imbalance in the patient?
  • a. Serum potassium level of 3.8mEq/L
  • b. Urine output of 400 ml in 9 hours
  • c. Blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg
  • d. Dry oral mucosa and cracked lips
  • e. Blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
  • Answer: D

  • Explaination: Explanation: Chemotherapy leads to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Fluid loss is due to vomiting. Some features are dry oral mucosa with cracked lips. Other significant features are decreased urine output, which is less than 40 ml/hour along with extremely low blood pressure. Serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L shows that there is an electrolyte imbalance. All other above-mentioned features do not match with the features of electrolyte imbalance.
Q. 13
A nurse uses ABCD method to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. In ABCD method what does the letter ‘A’ stand for?
  • a. Anger
  • b. Asymmetry
  • c. Allergy
  • d. Anuria
  • e. Acne
  • Answer: B

  • Explaination: Explanation: For the assessment of skin lesions in case of skin cancer, ABCD method ‘A’ is for asymmetry, ‘B’ is for border irregularity, ‘C’ stands for color variation, and ‘D’ for diameter. All other above-mentioned features are incorrect.
Q. 14
A 43-year-old female patient is diagnosed with cancer. She is being assessed for a possible metastasis. Which of the following organs would the nurse identify as one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
  • a. Descending colon
  • b. Liver
  • c. Cervix
  • d. Vagina
  • e. Ascending colon
  • Answer: B

  • Explaination: Explanation: The nurse has to identify that the liver has 18 to 40 times more primary liver tumors; it is the most common cancer metastasis site. The other common cancer metastasis sites are the brain, bone, lungs, and lymph nodes. Ascending and descending colons, vagina, and cervix are occasional metastasis sites.
Q. 15
A nurse is preparing a nursing care plan for a patient with marrow suppression. If the nurse administers the drug floxuridine, how long after drug administration does the recovery of bone marrow suppression occur as an adverse effect?
  • a. 4-7 days
  • b. 7-14 days
  • c. 25 days
  • d. 21 days
  • e. 16 days
  • Answer: D

  • Explaination: Explanation: A nurse can expect recovery of bone marrow in 21 days. Onset of adverse reactions occurs in 4-7 days. Bone marrow suppression occurs in 7-14 days after floxuridine. Bone marrow suppression is noticeable only after 7-14 days, before that it is not possible to identify bone marrow suppression in a patient.

Score: 0/15